How is it that human civilization is known to have existed at least 2000 years before Adam and Eve? By carefully calculating actual Biblical references, Adam and Eve were created 4,000 BC (plus or minus 50 years or so*). And yet the Sumerian civilization is known without a shadow of a doubt to have existed in the same general region of the supposed Garden of Eden since at least 6,000 BC (the Ubaid period). By the time Adam and Eve arrived the Sumerian civilization was already entering the Uruk period.
I apparently need someone who believes that the Biblical Account is literally accurate to explain to me how this works. How could Adam and Eve be the first people if they came at least two millennium late to the party?
Isn’t it more reasonable to assume that based simply on these calculations the story of Adam and Eve is allegorical, at least in part?
*The exact year Adam and Eve were created depends on whose math you trust most:
James Ussher (4004 BC)
Bede (3952 BC)
Joseph Justus Scaliger (3949 BC),
Johannes Kepler (3992 BC)
Sir Isaac Newton (c. 4000 BC)