Short answer, Not really. But let’s briefly examine why.
First of all, the word, “homosexuality” wasn’t even invented until the late 19th century. “Homosexual” didn’t begin to appear in English Bibles until after 1946. In most cases, it replaced the more archaic word, “sodomite”, a misguided reference to the citizens of the doomed city of Sodom mention in Genesis. What was the sin of Sodom? Contrary to popular belief, it had nothing to do with sexual preference (see Ezekiel 16:49).
The Bible was originally written in Hebrew and Greek. None of the words which are (mis)translated as “homosexual” reflect our modern understanding of the term. For example, “qadesh” means a male prostitute who engaged in ritual sex in a Pagan temple (Deuteronomy 23:17). In another example, Jude 1:7 refers specifically to the act of bestiality.
Secondly, the so-called, “clobber passages” are consistently taken out of context. Romans 1:26-27 refers to heterosexuals who engage in homosexual acts (possibly ritualistic) which are against their essential nature. Leviticus 18:22 actually refers to lying with another man in a woman’s bed. Also, the term “abomination” as translated in some Bibles might better be translated as “pagan” or “ritual impurity”. Much of Leviticus deals with the Holiness Code which doesn’t particularly pertain to modern Christians.
To sing Thy glory or Thy grace
Beneath Thy feet we lie afar
And see but shadows of Thy face.